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I think the assertion is flawed. IMHO I have never seen a case of a fatal accident where the, at fault, driver was given a reduced penalty because they hit a bike.



I've been wondering about this. Sure we all get P.O.'d when we see a story about someone who got off with "a slap on the wrist" after killing a motorcyclist. But has anyone researched if this happens more with motorcyclist victims vs. pedestrians or other cagers? Could be a larger problem, for example, the courts overburdened with victimless crimes give short shrift to the victims of vehicular accidents? Skewed legalistic priorities, perhaps? (I'm looking at you, War on Drugs, and Prostitution Stings.)

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